Sheppard Introduction to Fighter Fundamentals (IFF) A/G Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What term describes the straight-line distance from the aircraft to the target at bomb release?
• What is CEP and what does it inform in mission planning?
• Which statement describes how JTAC data-link sharing affects designation?
• Which factor is essential to terrain masking?
• What is a 'kill chain' in the context of A/G missions?
• What does TOT mean in the A/G context?
• How does data link (DDL) integration aid A/G operations?
• Which profile requires a minimum altitude of 1,500' AGL?
• What is the freefall path the bomb takes as it travels to the target, with drag affecting the path after release?
• When/how should you correct pattern spacing for winds?
• Which statement best defines Flightpath?
• Which option correctly defines Track Distance?
• Which statement best defines CAS and AI and provides typical target examples?
• For LAHD, when the planned dive angle is less than 30 degrees, what is the minimum recovery altitude?
• What is a High-value target and why is it prioritized?
• In the RAP formula, which factor multiplies wind speed?
• What is the fundamental function of a fuze in a munition?
• Which safety concept underpins all air-to-ground operations and requires constant attention from aircrew and ground controllers?
• Define attack geometry and explain why lead angle is essential when engaging a moving point target with unguided munitions.
• Which sequence best represents the OODA loop used in tactical decision-making for air-to-ground operations?
• For obtaining a tone during pickle, to which detent do you push or pull?
• What is a coffin corner in range pattern terminology?
• In a mission constrained by close proximity friendly forces, which engagement type would minimize risk to friendlies?
• Which dive angle range is used for CLM SEM deliveries?
• Which phase comes first in a typical three-phase A/G mission planning process?
• In dive bombing, MRA stands for?
• Use a level bombing method for which combination of drag and altitude?
• Abort criteria include pop-up airspeed decreasing below 300 KCAS during roll-in. This is an example of an abort condition related to what?
• ______ for low angle events; _____ for high angle events
• During an unexpected ordnance recovery, which flight pattern is acceptable?
• Airburst fuze mode detonates at what condition?
• In the kill chain, what step follows the attack?
• In a CLM SEM, how many Gs are pulled in how many seconds after release?
• IAA stands for which term in delivery calculations?
• How does bank angle influence attack turn geometry and potential hit accuracy?
• What does IPP stand for?
• What is a fuze and differentiate between point detonation and airburst fuze modes?
• Which statement best differentiates point detonation fuze from proximity/airburst fuze modes and their tactical implications?
• For LALD, with a planned dive angle less than 30 degrees, what is the minimum recovery altitude?
• If wind pushes a munition to the left, what is a typical compensating adjustment?
• What does laser designation involve?
• What is the AOP?
• In a manual dive bomb pass, the FPM should be placed relative to the no-wind AOP?
• What does Bomb Trail measure?
• During the CLM SEM pull-up, which statement about bank angle is true?
• What is the RAP Extended equation?
• If wind speed doubles while TOF remains the same, what happens to the RAP value?
• What considerations drive choosing a GPS-guided weapon versus a laser-guided weapon for a given target?
• Scenario: dive angle ≥ 30° and minimum altitude of 1,500' AGL. Which profile is described?
• What is the primary function of data link in air-to-ground operations when connected with JTAC?
• Explain the concept of energy management during an A/G attack run and its importance.
• Scenario: dive angle > 15°, MRA 1,000' AGL. Which profile is described?
• KIO situations include which of the following monitoring actions?
• In Dive Bomb (DB) profile, with a planned dive angle of 30 degrees or more, what is the minimum recovery altitude?
• Can you change what the DCL key takes away in flight?
• Climbing is complete during the climb-out when you touch which value?
• During jettison under abnormal procedures, which procedure should be followed?
• Which statement best describes attack geometry?
• With a headwind, _______ base
• In the event of an unintentional release, what is the recommended action?
• IPB stands for and its primary use in mission planning?
• Visual Level Delivery (VLD) minimum altitude is what, given climb or dive less than 5 degrees?
• As the nose approaches the horizon in a CLM SEM, what power setting should be used?
• Which range is the most restrictive category of range, with RCO present, spotters, 2-way radio, and scoring capability?
• Under which condition will a delay cue be issued?
• Which of the following is an abort criterion?
• During unexpected ordnance recovery, which approach is permitted?
• For a check turn on pop attack, the bank angle should be:
• What does Bomb Range measure?
• IP P placement is defined as the placement of the Pipper short of the target when first rolling out on final at which reference?
• What is a hung ordnance?
• During a no-wind situation, the Aim-Off Point is located at what position relative to the target?
• What is 'kill chain deconfliction' and how is it maintained during operations?
• Which switch toggles between CCIP bombs, CCIP guns, and CCRP?
• What are the two primary A/G mission types used to describe fighter-level employment?
• What is a probable disposition of the aircraft after a hung ordnance event when in the arming area?
• What is Bomb Damage Assessment (BDA) and its typical outcomes?
• What is the formula for MAP?
• A dive scenario with angle < 30° and minimum recovery altitude defined as the higher of ordnance-specific values applies to which profile?
• Abort criteria include that element pop-ups from fighting wing or closer will not be performed. Which statement reflects this rule?
• What numeric key on the UFCP serves as the declutter hot key?
• What is the difference between centralized and decentralized kill chain approaches in air-to-ground operations?
• Which range is an unmanned range with no scoring or control capability?
• How does data link sharing with JTAC influence target designation accuracy?
• How does wind affect munitions trajectory and what adjustments are typically made?
• What is the primary function of deconfliction in A/G missions and who typically manages it?
• CCIP slant range is measured to which point in the sight?
• Which statement is a release consideration for unguided bombs?
• Which surface target type is exemplified by a railway line?
• In Low Angle Strafe (LAS), if planned dive angle is less than 15 degrees, what is the minimum altitude?
• In an inadvertent release, which sequence best follows the event?
• Which of the following is NOT a common target designation method in A/G operations?
• What is a laser designation spot and what must be done to maintain accuracy during a LGB attack?
• What is the meaning of 'delivery envelope' for precision-guided munitions?
• Which statement reflects the Bomb Damage Assessment outcomes after a strike?
• What is meant by 'coordinate accuracy' for GPS-guided weapons and how can it be ensured?
• RAP Extended is true: which statement describes it?
• Abort criteria include the aircraft passing below minimum recovery altitude. This is an example of an abort condition related to what?
• In mission planning, CEP is used to assess risk based on what metric?
• Which maneuver is flown to transition the aircraft out of delivery mode and move away from the ground and out of the frag?
• Which method allows reconfiguring the DCL key action?
• In a Level Turning Maneuver SEM, what is the allowed dive angle range?
• What is the minimum spacing for a level delivery?
• What is target deconfliction and why is it critical in multi-asset operations?
• Ideally, with visual on the jet ahead of you in the pattern, adjust pattern spacing on what?
• Pop-up termination occurs if the roll-in requires less than 15 degrees or more than 90 degrees of turn. Which option reflects this rule?
• Which option best defines Track Time?
• In all cases, fly the downwind track wide enough for what?
• What is the nominal effective range of the T-38 simulated 20mm gun?
• In a typical three-phase A/G mission planning process, which phase comes second?
• Which of the following is an abort criterion for the training release?
• Safe escape parameters: Which is a valid parameter?
• During an attack turn, increasing bank angle primarily affects which aspects?
• The pull-up in a CLM SEM should be continued to what climb angle?
• List two primary guidance methods used by A/G munitions and give a one-sentence description of each.
• The A-10 gun range is?
• What is the minimum ceiling for level deliveries?
• What action is included in the recovery plan for a hung ordnance when possible?
• In High Angle Strafe (HAS), what is the minimum altitude when planned dive angle is greater than 15 degrees?
• Identify a correct pairing of surface target type with its example.
• Why is a mission debrief essential after an air-to-ground strike?
• Which condition would trigger abort/terminate criteria?
• What is terrain masking, and how can it be used to improve survivability in an A/G mission?
• What are common post-engagement steps in A/G operations?
• Which statement describes inertial/assisted guidance?
• What is JTAC's role in A/G operations?
• What is the priority of radio calls?
• Which statement is correct about CCIP, CCRP, and the third mode in A/G master mode?
• With a tailwind, ______ base
• Which profile uses a 2,000' foul line and a minimum altitude of 75' AGL?
• Which statement about safe escape Gs is correct?
• What is the role of armament status indicators on the aircraft cockpit?
• During pre-arm and arming safety checks, which action is performed?
• Which statement best describes ROE in air-to-ground missions?
• How can adverse weather degrade laser designation and precision guidance?
• What does MAP stand for, and how is it defined?
• Scenario: Visual Level Delivery involves climb or dive less than 5°, and altitude 100' AGL. Which profile is described?
• Which system allows you to select what is removed from the HUD for A/G Master Mode once decluttered?
• Which armament status state signals that a weapon can be released when commanded?
• What HUD/MFD indicators provide a pilot with weapon status and release readiness?
• Level Turning maneuver- the minimum bank angle is which of the following?
• You see a break; what is the recommended immediate action?
• What is the RAP equation for Release Aim Point?
• In a Level Turning Maneuver SEM, what minimum degrees of turn from release heading must 4 Gs be maintained?
• To select the type of gunsight for A/G strafing, which page is used?
• What is the purpose of deconfliction in A/G operations?
• What is the purpose of a laser spot tracker during LGB delivery?
• Which threat type is mitigated by maintaining altitude and speed and maneuvering?
• Which factor is explicitly listed as determining the stand-off distance for stand-off weapons?
• Which of the following is the third priority radio call?
• AOP stands for?
• In weather-influenced conditions, which statement about the delivery envelope is accurate?
• In CCIP slant range, to which point is the distance measured?
• In multi-target scenarios, what is the purpose of target prioritization?
• What does AOD stand for?
• Which of the following is the second priority radio call?
• The DTS starts to record the HUD when which button is pressed with Weight-off-wheels?
• Scenario: dive angle < 15°, foul line 2,000', MRA 75' AGL. Which profile is described?
• What happens if the laser designator loses line-of-sight during a LGB flight?
• Which designation method provides exact target coordinates without a designator?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the Aim-Off Point (AOP) and the Aim-Off Distance (AOD)?
• How do precision and non-precision munitions differ in terms of required targeting data?
• What is the purpose of a preflight/flight weapons safety checklist?
• Which profile specifies a minimum altitude of 1,000' AGL or higher depending on ordnance?
• Terrain masking can affect engagement planning by which effect?
• Which statement best describes the concept of shootability as used in air-to-ground planning?
• Why might GPS-guided munitions be preferred in adverse weather or low-visibility operations over laser-guided bombs?
• What is the purpose of a spacer pass?
• ITP stands for which term in air-ground targeting?
• In poor-visibility conditions, what advantage do GPS/INS guided munitions provide?
• In addition to CCIP and CCRP, what is the third mode in A/G master mode?
• Which profile is defined by a minimum altitude of 100' AGL with climb or dive less than 5 degrees?
• Which range is a manned or unmanned range usually with scoring capability, but not RCO?
• IPP is the placement of the Pipper short of the target when first rolling out on final at what altitude?
• In air-to-ground mission planning, what does the concept of shootability describe?
• What is collateral damage avoidance and what planning measures support it?
• What is the time from weapon release to bomb impact called?
• Which of the following is a planning measure to minimize collateral damage?
• Which release factors affect accuracy and safety for unguided general-purpose bombs?
• What is the minimum ceiling for diving deliveries?